. . . Tolkien says, in the letter both you and Watson quote, that Frodo's will
"had been exercised in resisting, not using, the Ring and with the object of
destroying it." And Gollum contemplates responding to Frodo's pity, but
ultimately becomes treacherous, which implies that he still has free
will. Frodo suggests a promise, Gollum suggests swearing on the precious,
Frodo warns him against it, Gollum insists, Frodo allows him to swear by the
precious. Is Frodo claiming the Ring as he will do at Mount Doom?
No. Does Gollum become his slave? No.
So I can understand why many readers would insist that Frodo did not "use" the
Ring in taming Smeagol -- and apparently Tolkien at one point either thought
the same, or forgot about that scene, because he too said Frodo had not used
the Ring. And at the same time I can understand why you say he did use
the Ring, and why Tolkien at one point said the same. Still, daunting
Gollum as the ringbearer is not the same as claiming the
Ring.
________________________________________
"‘I think he was a silly little man,' said Councillor Tompkins. ‘Worthless, in fact; no use to Society at all.'
"‘Oh, I don't know,' said Atkins, who was nobody of importance, just a schoolmaster. ‘I am not so sure: it depends on what you mean by use .'
"‘No practical or economic use,' said Tompkins. . . .
. . .
"‘It is proving very useful indeed,' said the Second Voice. ‘As a holiday, and a refreshment. It is splendid for convalescence; and not only for that, for many it is the best introduction to the Mountains. It works wonders in some cases. I am sending more and more there. They seldom have to come back.'"
